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All comments by Ronald Kalf
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Yes I know, but for the Dutch it didn't change the outcome if the match. I cannot understand that two pairs playing in the quarter finals of WBG pass in the N seat. I would have passed as S (but without the XX bid a scrambling 2N). Can this really be a penalty pass? Then I would again bid 2N!
Sept. 14, 2016
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Thank you Michal. Unfortunally everything works fine until I click on the # of tricks to see the bidding. Then I get internal server error.
Sept. 14, 2016
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I play Lebensohl. 3m and 3 are invitational, but 3 is slamgoing. With a hand worth an invite in opposite a reverse we would have bid 2, not 1. 4m is a splinter with -support and usually an honour in . With an invitational hand we temporarily suppress a 4crd in . Ah, of course 1N is forcing.
Sept. 14, 2016
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Although I agree 100% with everything you wrote, others can have different agreements.
Sept. 12, 2016
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That's the way I play Spiral Scan. Furthermore you can diectly ask for a specific K if you have Q of trumps. In the example given 5 asks for K of the 2/1-suit, 5 is sign-off, 5N asks for K of the lowest unbid suit etc.. You can ask multiple times and sometimes even about specific Q. IIRC I found that in Rosenktanz' book on Romex.
Sept. 11, 2016
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The original definition of a reverse is bidding two suits in a non-natural order, the natural order being higher suit first. This forces partner to the 3-level to show preference for the first suit. Then the idea was born to call 1-2; 3 a high reverse because it also forces the 3-level. This is nonsense in the light of the original definition, because the suits are bid in their natural order. Now it has become increasingly popular to call every suit bid that shows extra values a reverse. A couple of years from now we will call 1-1; 2N a reverse.
Sept. 10, 2016
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In your book! In my book it merely says “I would have bid 1”, which is also non-standard. In Germany I guess the majority is with Anthony.
Sept. 9, 2016
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2 is limited and non-forcing, 3 is an invite, meaning less then an opening bid here. The upper limit of 2 is to low to think about slam. Therefore 4 is non-forcing. It is not a sign-off, with a misfit you have to pass now. KQJxxx in isn't worth a dime, pass. Bid 5 with A if you have controls in the round suits and/or an honour in .
Sept. 8, 2016
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Then I'd better play with Sabrina.
Sept. 7, 2016
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Hi Sabrina, I'm the second 2-bidder. @Anant: now we either play in or in a 5-4--fit. Yes, I consider 2 forcing. I hope Peg agrees.
Sept. 7, 2016
Ronald Kalf edited this comment Sept. 7, 2016
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Timo, thank you for prompting me into thinking more carefully about FJ/FNJ even if if doesn't change my mind because bidding 4 now is probably the only chance to show good -support. I agree that the 4th trump is worth something, maybe half a trick on average. In partscore competition we need to know if we want to apply LoTT. If the hand belongs to us, it is (just) part of hand evaluation. If opps intervene on the 2-level, you can differentiate between 4crd (2N) and 3crd (cue) raises. Over a 3-level overcall this is no longer possible. The only statement on needing 5+4 for an FJ is after 1m-opening, but this is because you may want to play in M. There are lots of examples for FNJ with 3crd support (even a doubleton) on pages 60-64. I do admit however that this is not exactly the same situation.
Sept. 7, 2016
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@Timo: I'm not sure if there are any examples. On the same page it reads “Obviously you are under severe pressure, and consequently your bids must be more flexible. Still, you must not be lazy. With a reasonable (high-card) raise to four-major you must not jump to game, which shows a semi-preemptive hand with a high ODR.” Surely S has enough high cards and enough for a raise to four. @Patrick: Tell me more, I'm always interested in brighter ideas.
Sept. 6, 2016
Ronald Kalf edited this comment Sept. 6, 2016
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Page 37: “ Jumps to game are generally natural and to play, except in sequences where responder jumps to 4 opposite a spade opening/overcall; or to 5 opposite a diamond bid. If responder wants to play in 4 over 1-(3)-? he must bid 3 (forcing) and follow with 4.”
Sept. 6, 2016
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Robson and Segal may not be the only authorities on competitive bidding, but if you read their book you'll probably admit that their ideas make a lot of sense.
Sept. 6, 2016
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A few comments. @Ray: if you open balanced 11 counts, you can open this hand. Opening light per agreement is not a problem. @Michael Day: In that case you don't need to be “sorry”. 4 to show a minmum (for you sub-) is a waste of bidding space as long as pard can have a huge hand. Still 4 should say that you don't have a slam hand. I agree with Paul that non-serious 3N is better then non-serious cues, but I agree even more with Kit that 4 showing a void is the best bid. The difference between a void and a stiff is often underestimated. @Dale: Don't splinter with a stiff A or K (or a void for that matter). All in all S is more to blame, AJ of is worth 3 points opposite a singleton, the stiff A is worth 3+3 giving a total of 14, not something to volontarily bid over 4.
Sept. 6, 2016
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Before commenting on the bidding, I strongly recommend reading “Partnership Bidding at Bridge” by Robson and Segal. After reading S would bid 4 showing the suit and support in one bid. Their mantra is “support with support” and your problem started because N didn't know about the -fit. As it is, I understand 3, planning to rebid 4. Be aware however that pard will not expect such good support if the bidding continues …(p)-3-(p)-4. Anyway, W's 5 is the next challenge. If you are not sure if forcing pass is on, as it should be, I can understand 6. I can see no reason for S to bid 7 however.
Sept. 6, 2016
Ronald Kalf edited this comment Sept. 6, 2016
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IMO Anti-Splinter is most helpfull with super accept. Opps bidding doesn't change this.
Sept. 2, 2016
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That is exactly the problem: aletring have made CCs superflous in the eyes of most. I don't see CCs in the clubs I've played during the last years. Also I don't see the time problem. In a club you play against the same players often enough to make taking a closer look worthwhile. That's how it used to be in the pre-alerting days. Plus, you can always take a second peek if a bid comes up.
Sept. 2, 2016
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3014 or whatever is totally irrelevant to the meaning of 4N, because it tells you something about the responses to 4N. IMO correct would be 4N = asking for keycards. Then 5? = 0 or 3 keycards. If you are very fastidious even “asking for aces” is not the meaning of 4N, it should be “forcing, strong interest in slam, but not sure if we have sufficient key cards”.
Sept. 1, 2016
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Agreed! 4N? RKCB 3041! Great.
Sept. 1, 2016
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