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All comments by Ronald Kalf
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1 shows 4crd and either 15-18 balanced or 16-18 5(+). Unless S has extreme distribution including a good 6crd (max 1 loser opposite a small stiff) there are only 2 possible bids: 2=unbalanced and 2 balanced. If after 1 N is interested in slam with a good 6crd there are 3 options: 4 is RKCB, 2 then 4 is a mild slam try, 2 then 3 is a stronger slam try.
Aug. 23
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Without agreement doesn‘t exist. With agreement whatever that agreement is.
Aug. 23
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Agree, in this specific case extremely unlikely, but still not impossible. Pass over 2X could be tactical hoping that we kept them from bidding game.
Aug. 23
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Intended as penalty, but not 100% of course.
Aug. 23
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„the ♠Q makes 1♦ opening reasonable for many these days“ Of course it is reasonable, I would also open AKQxxx and a side Q 1. It‘s preemptive and specific. I like Mark R‘s solution better however.
Aug. 22
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„I don't know anyone outside a rubber bridge room who plays a 1st or 2nd seat 3NT as ‘to play’.“
Must be about 4 years ago that we had a British guest in our club. I was asked to play with him because he only plays Acol. So I ask „Benji?“ and he replies „What is Benji?“ Even then I didn‘t realize what that meant regarding 3N. Anyway at one board he opend 3 my RHO bid 3, I doubled ending the bidding. Down 1 or 2, I don‘t remember. My partner was proud of his solid preemt. At the other tables the opening bid was a GNT down 1 in the usual way (A then switch).
Aug. 22
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Excellent material, not just the part on Lavinthal. I‘ll take the time to study it all.
Aug. 21
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Yes, I hope to hear 5 over my 5.
Aug. 21
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Too much of a maximum. The value of the hand is closer to 18 then to 15. 18.85 K&R.
Aug. 20
Ronald Kalf edited this comment Aug. 20
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I agree, but is unavoidable in WJ. We do avoid it, but have a completely different structure.
Aug. 19
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I‘d say you should bid 1, absolutely forcing, could even be 5 in a strong hand, but also a 12 count 4333. You can bid 2 if responer rebids 1N, which is again unlimited and forcing.
Personally I don‘t like this ambiguity in WJ. In our system (with a WNT) 1-1;1 shows 4crd iand 15-18 balanced or 5(+). The seond bid always clarifies if opener is strong or not and almost always (this is the only exception) if opener has SNT or an unbalanced hand.
Aug. 19
Ronald Kalf edited this comment Aug. 19
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Ah, I see E has only 6, but even so the only category of spot cards that could be missing is for the come-on message.
Aug. 19
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If I understand your rules correctly, E‘s J must show KJT9843 because in all other cases E would have a spot card in all catagories. It looks easy to cash A and continue with . Am I missing something?
Aug. 19
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Okay, I understand what you mean. Should I use WGI (who goofed it) or DYAWTB (do you agree with the bidding) in stead of ATB?
Aug. 19
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Richard, Paul, are you pulling my leg? The blame is independent of the outcome. FYI 5-1 is par.
Aug. 18
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As others have written, the problem is not PC specific. This is a borderline decision. With 3415 I tend to bid 1 aggressively and pass 1. Here I cannot pass 1 and would have to choose between two unattractive rebids (1N and 2). I‘d probably bid 1, but our strong 1 starts at 19 and systemic responses are 6+, not 7+. However: one bad board can never be a reason to change your system!
Aug. 18
Ronald Kalf edited this comment Aug. 18
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Because unfortunately neither N nor S could see preempters hand before making the decision.
Aug. 17
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Now let mt tell you s out the happy end. I got a lead to K and A, whereupon I continued with 2 rounds of , both ducked. Then I rattled of my , played a to J and A. Opps managed to crash their honours and my K made the 9th trick. With Q onsite, 5d is par, but no one played there. The final outcome doesn‘t make the bidding any better of course.
Aug. 17
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Other, 4, not 3 OR 4.
Aug. 16
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I‘m not like everybody else (The Kinks, 1966).
Aug. 16
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