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All comments by Kit Woolsey
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Of course it is a restricted choice situation. That much is easy.

It is true that due to vacant spaces the chances of a specific 4-3 split (xxxx vs. QJ9) are more likely than a specific 5-2 split (Qxxxx vs. J9). However, there are two relevant 5-2 splits, and one relevant 4-3 split. The odds in favor of the restricted choice play will be less than 2 to 1. However, I'm pretty sure that the vacant spaces don't compensate enough to make playing for QJ9 the percentage play, as David seems to suggest. Somebody else can do the exact math on this if they want.

David's logic that because an initial 4-3 split with North having 4 is more than twice as likely as an initial 5-2 split with North having 5 doesn't seem correct to me here. We have already thrown out all the other 4-3 and 5-2 splits, as they no longer exist. The only remaining relevant holdings (with South) are QJ9, Q9 doubleton, and J9 doubleton. Nothing else matters.
3 hours ago
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The general agreement is that if you lead a low card it is because you don't have the highest card, so partner doesn't have to worry about being overruffed. Thus, leading the highest card should say that declarer doesn't have any more cards in the suit.
4 hours ago
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The director does not understand the laws. The question is not whether 3 is a reasonable bid. The question is whether it is an automatic bid vs. passing out 2. In other words, is passing out 2 a logical alternative.

If it is judged that passing out 2 is not a logical alternative, then there is no adjustment.

If it is judged that the BIT suggests bidding 3 instead of passing AND that passing is a logical alternative, then the score should be adjusted to 2 making whatever it is likely to make.
4 hours ago
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North should definitely pass if South doubles. How can North expect to take 11 tricks? And partner has said it looks better to defend doubled.
4 hours ago
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I think the auction is important here. East opened 1, and after some artificial bids where East showed spades and clubs (not sure what West showed) West bid 5, exclusion, and East bid 5NT, 2 with the queen.

The reason that this is important is that the response to exclusion is certainly honest, so the defense doesn't have to worry about declarer being off the queen of trumps. That makes a trump lead from any holding pretty mandatory. North did lead the 10, which in addition to 10x might be stiff 10 or J10 doubleton. Restricted choice makes stiff 10 more likely.

Catching QJx of diamonds with sufficient entries to run the diamond suit is declarer's best chance. Thus, I believe that the best play is to win the ace of spades and lead a spade, planning on finessing if South follows small. When the jack pops up and the suit is 2-2 declarer can then go after diamonds immediately, and on the fall of 9 and honor he can take the restricted choice ruffing finesse.

This approach maximizes the chances of bringing in the diamond suit. I believe this outweighs the tiny extra chances from the other plays.
4 hours ago
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This looks basically right. East has UI, but he is never bidding again. West has UI, but West is never bidding again. Assuming East has shown clubs, West has automatic lead of ace of clubs – if anything, the UI might suggest something else. If South had received the correct information about the meaning of the redouble (apparently some kind of runout which can include hearts), that would make South's 2 call more attractive for fear opponents have a big heart fit and South wants to get his spades in now.

The only issue is on the play. If South had received the correct information about the redouble, ducking the second trick would be a lot more attractive. So, adjust to what the result would have been in 2 if South had ducked.
May 21
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Since South bid 4 under fire, the call does not establish a force. South must do something over 5 with this hand, since he knows that if 5 is making 5 will be a decent save, and if 5 isn't making then doubling is better than selling out undoubled. Which action South should take is anybody's guess.
May 21
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I don't understand what everybody is talking about with 5. For all South knows, he will buy the contract for 4. Why should he commit to the 5-level at this point?
May 21
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I had to abstain since you didn't hit my option, which would be:

It is a reasonable bid, and I might or might not bid it.
May 21
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It is true that cashing the king of diamonds and ruffing a diamond runs the risk of East having a doubleton diamond and the 9 of spades (if you choose to ruff with the 8) or a 5-0 spade split (if you choose to ruff high). Both of these are low probability scenarios, and I believe that potentially isolating the diamond guard and having a better picture of what to discard from dummy on the last trump (dummy will at that point have Kx of clubs, a heart, and a diamond) is more important.

Assuming East doesn't have Qxx of clubs (in which case you will normally go down, although if East does have a doubleton diamond and you choose the right ruff you may have enough of a count to change your plans and simply play East for the queen of clubs), you will always have a potential show-up squeeze depending upon which red suit West guards. The danger is that West started with Qxxx of clubs, and was clever enough to unguard both red suits immediately and never discard a club until the end. While West could in principle find this sequence of discarding, it is very unlikely that he will do so. He will probably discard a club relatively early, and then you will probably be able to read the position if you assume that West won't be sharp enough to make an early club discard from xxx.
May 21
UI?
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I don't understand the issue. What else would you ever bid on this hand, UI or not? You will never play this hand in hearts no matter how many times partner bids them.
May 21
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When the partner of a limited hand jumps to game in a game-forcing auction, the auction is over. Period. If South has any slam interest at all over 3NT, he can simply bid 4 (or anything else which is forcing).
May 20
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It would mean that South thought the best contract is 5.
May 20
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We play penalty doubles of 2M when we open a 10-12 NT. Negative doubles otherwise.
May 16
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Maybe you can push the opponents one level higher with your sacrifice.
May 15
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Well, I would expect it to show extra strength absent discussion.
May 15
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At my table, I bid only 3. Partner was unwilling to GSF for fear that we might be off the AK of trumps (he has seen my preempts). So he tried RKC, which is reasonable.

I think the right approach after I shown 2 keycards is to bid 6. Even if this hasn't been discussed, I believe logically this shows a diamond void and asks partner to bid the grand if he doesn't have the ace of diamonds.

Unfortunately, my partner was one of those who chose to bid the grand. It was just another dull push.
May 15
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3 is a stopper ask. It could be bid with a solid spade suit where 3NT looks better if partner can bid 3NT.
May 13
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I agree South shouldn't have that. But that doesn't mean that he doesn't have that.
May 13
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I can picture hands where a heart, diamond, or club is right or wrong. However, if you are going to shift to a diamond I believe it should be the king of diamonds. This guarantees knocking the entry out of dummy, Picture declarer with something like Ax Q109xxx Qx Qxx and you will see the difference.
May 13
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