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All comments by Gábor Szőts
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The opponents were top players but had no agreement about the double. Opening leader took it as a heart stack and he led Q.
Yes, the main reason West passed out the double was that he hoped it would be interpreted as suggesting a spade lead.
Oct. 23, 2014
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To Michael: I see a problem with the suggested defence. What if declarer has QJ9xxxx Jx Qxxx -? Now if West plays 32 and East shifts to a trump, declarer makes.
Oct. 23, 2014
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Yes, 9 was misguided. It was probably meant to make East cash his K but West failed to realize that in fact he was showing AJ9 as Frances pointed out. Actually it led to the opposite effect of discouraging East from cashing K.
Oct. 22, 2014
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5 was not laydown but it could have been made because doubleton Q in overcaller's hand ruffs out (first you lead the king). Perhaps not easy.
Oct. 22, 2014
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In fact the hand meets all the requirements for a gambling 3NT according to the agreements of this pair.
However, I am not sure that 3NT would have led to 4 (West may have preferred to take it out to 4, for example).
Oct. 22, 2014
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Thanks, Frances, for the exhausting reply. To make things clearer:
EW lead the A from AK.
Both players agreed that at trick 1 the jack showed attitude, denying interest in overruffing dummy.
EW normally play attitude when switching.
Oct. 22, 2014
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For me it looks scary to commit to the 4-level with 25 HCP's and a suit not certain to run. However, it might be a winning strategy in the long run.
Oct. 4, 2014
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In my view West had the option of bidding 3NT but I don't think that double was unreasonable. With some hands 3NT will have no play when 4 is laydown.
However, E clearly misbid the hand. 4 looks like he was choosing from the suits partner had offered, no wonder that West lookeded for something else, not having real help in clubs. East had a good descriptive bid, namely 5, available, which assures West of suit length, at the same time denying slam interest.
That's why I chose 15-85.
Sept. 23, 2014
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I'm sure double is for penalties here, so the only thing I could invent here is 3 for the minors. However, that carries a big risk and we may not have a game even if partner has opening values, so why bother?
The real problem will come next round when I will have to decide whether to reopen 3 (I am not going to).
I never abstain but this was close as it would never have occurred to me to pass 2 at my first turn.
Sept. 23, 2014
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I'd offer a choice via puppet. The other day partner did the same to me and I chose 4 despite being 4333. Even after the hands have been revealed it was difficult to determine which game was best. My experience suggests to look for the 5-3 fit whenever there is a way.
Sept. 22, 2014
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Maybe opening leader could deduce anyway that a ruff alone would not be enough to set the contract. E.g. declarer plays low to trick 2 as well then have 2 discards later. Would have to know whole dummy, opening leader's hand and bidding sequence.
Of course the knowledge of partner's spade holding makes the defender's task easier as he can exclude a line from his thinking.
Sept. 19, 2014
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As a reply to Geoff:

I think the remark of CH, stating he was considering double, is a giveaway that he was not just being slow but cheating.
Sept. 19, 2014
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Yes, I meant to create three categories: penalties, in-betweeen, takeout.
Sept. 18, 2014
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Yes, I know it was not a mandatory opening…

I myself also bid 4. That went down 2 (could have gone down 1). 4 would have been 2 down.
Partner's hand: xxx,xx,Axxxx,Axx.
Sept. 16, 2014
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From the answers I have deduced that the double says it is our hand and we have no particularly good club support, and, of course, we don't have a clear-cut bid of our own. Also, not much in hearts is expected.
In light of that, what do you think opener should do in a pairs tournament, both sides vulnerable, with the following hand: AQxx,x, Kxx, QTxxx?
Sept. 15, 2014
Gábor Szőts edited this comment Sept. 15, 2014
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To Frances and Alan:

We have the following scheme when Stayman is doubled:

Pass: stopper. Responder redoubles if willing to play there, otherwise bids something natural. Over redouble, opener makes his original intended bid.
Redouble, 3, 3: no stopper, transfer to the intended bid (e.g. 3 = s)

This makes responder declarer if a suit contract is to be played.
Aug. 29, 2014
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Thank you for the replies, everyone.

It seems to me there is no mainstream agreement for this situation.
Aug. 27, 2014
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Joshua, what I wanted to say is that this tempo problem is inherent to all inv+ sequences, and I would not want to increase the number of situations when that occurs.
I have read some pairs, either for this reason or some other, distinguish between invitational and GF hand by using different bids when possible, e.g. over 1-(1) 2 is limit raise while 3 is the GF raise.
Aug. 18, 2014
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To Dean Pokorny:
(a) I don't think 2 denies the 7th card.
(b) You can use 3NT as a spade splinter.
© Can be a correct evaluation of a hand.
(d) It is already NF, although invitational for most people, I guess.

Anyway, if you would gladly bid 1-1-2-2 with the weak, 7-card spade hand, what's the problem with bidding 2 immediately?
Aug. 17, 2014
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In reply to Joshua Donn:
“- Play 3♣ inv+ in diamonds, 3♦ inv+ in hearts, 3♥ inv+ in spades, 3♠ GF no fit. Transfers.”
I do not like this inv+ method. If partner hesitates then signs off I am going to have an awkward time explaining my game bid with a borderline hand.
The first method you suggest seems far superior.
Aug. 17, 2014
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