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All comments by Gábor Szőts
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Bernard, we know because the lead was 7, top of nothing. What am I missing?
April 26
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We know declarer has the 8.
April 25
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Jeff, 3NT seems an overbid to me on those cards.

Or you mean he should have passed? Now there you are over the reopening double, either you punish partner and bid 3NT or you bid an encouraging 3 which he will never take as so strong.
Even worse is if they raise the ante to 3. Now if parner passes you are totally guessing.
April 25
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About equal blame: South bid an encouraging 4 with his dead minimum, North bid an undiscussed 4NT then accepted his own slam try.
April 25
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If they bid, DBL can ask for the 5-card suit. This is a forcing situation, opener is obliged to reopen with a double if responder passes.
April 24
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We play that pass shows a stopper after which XX asks again.
Without a stopper we transfer to the intended response, that is XX shows diamonds, 3 hearts and 3 spades.
April 24
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I totally agree with you on pickup team games, hosts booting players at their own will, and the rudeness.
BBO has promised to address these problems but apparently without much success.
I find the reputation point idea splendid.
April 24
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I could not do it in tempo but my bid was 3. The opps competed to 3 and partner raised to 4. This was mercifully not doubled.
The hand: http://bridzs.hu/result/1696/683/17imp1a06-4.htm
April 21
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Thanks all for your replies. I would not have thought this would induce so many of them.
April 21
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You must play extremely heavy openers.
April 20
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Yes, I meant the possibility of 4 spades.
April 20
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With one partner I do play 2NT as invitational but our 2m is GF. We pretend that unbalanced invitational hands with support but without major do not exist.
April 18
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To force in diamonds after 1-1-1NT we use 2 game forcing relay. I'm still waiting for the hand with which I would like to play 2 and the opponents would like it as well.
April 18
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Barry, your system of 2m and 2NT both FG seems inherently conflicting to me. However, that is what Lauria-Versace play. Their solution for the 1 opening is as follows:
2: GF raise
3: invitational raise
3: PRE
As their 2 response to 1 is GF I wonder what they do with invitational club hands.

In case of interest, this is what I play:
1m-2m: INV+ (can be balanced invit). Now 2 is any balanced hand while 3-bids are distributional game forces. With a weak distributional hand we bid 2.
1m-2NT: BAL GF (13-15), may contain 4-card M. There is an overlap between 2m and 2NT, 2m is bid if the hand would not like being declarer in NT.
1m-3m: mixed
There is no preemptive raise in the system.

I prefer this structure because it does not require another bid to fill in holes.
April 18
Gábor Szőts edited this comment April 18
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This brings up funny memories. Once I opened 1 on AKxxx,x,AKxx,AKx. Partner responded 4. I bid 5 looking for a one-loser suit. Partner, with KQJ10xxx, passed.

His LHO had A98xx.
April 13
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I voted for double. I hope correcting to 3 at my next turn will show that I had a 3 1/2 raise.
If my opps compete to 3 I'm going to ‘save’.
My partner will never pass out of tempo over 3. By the time I have finished my thinking he'll be prepared for everything.
April 13
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I agree with you as well. Doubling in the first place has the advantage that partner knows you have 4 spades. If you pass and he doubles then you can't be sure that he has 4 spades.
April 13
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I totally agree. If you passed for penalty, to pass now is just a follow-up.
April 13
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I agree that transfer is not the proper description of their responses to 1.
April 7
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I feel it is inherently illogical to play this double as support.
So even if that is the best option, I don't support it.
April 7
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