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All comments by Donald Lurie
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Thx, I am aware of the article you reference. I wrote it.
The results so far of the survey of how people play/ interpret the double of 3 is rather interesting imo.
Sept. 21
Donald Lurie edited this comment 23 hours ago
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Granted. It is a partnership agreement issue, this is an infrequent situation, and not all that many people/ partnerships might have established methods for addressing this type of problem. And I thank everyone who has responded so far.

I am particularly interested in people's preferences or how much more prevalent (if at all) one method might be when compared to other(s). And, if possible, the reasons behind people preferences. Is there anything in particular, including personal experience and comfort, to suggest that one method might be theoretically and/ or practically better than another? How much, if at all, does memory factor into the equation?

If your preference is penalty, I am curious about how you handle the great variety of hands that some might feel are better handled via a takeout/neg X.
Perhaps the meaning of X after a 3S overcall should be different than after a 3-level overcall in another suit.

I recall reading a long time ago some well-known/ respected author's suggestion (can't recall who it was, though) that it is unlikely that someone who makes a 3-level overcall of 2NT will have a solid, running suit off the top, that such hands might double 2NT first. I guess the implcation was that it is more likely than not that the 2NT opener will often still have a stopper in the overcalled suit so that it might be safe to bid 3N on a hand with cards but not the right shape for t/o - neg X.
Do people hold with that opinion and, if so, does that impact on your prefered meaning of the double? (does this all make sense?)
Sept. 20
Donald Lurie edited this comment Sept. 21
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i probably should have included not playing leaping or non-leaping michaels in the OP - my bad. Playing nlm would've made life easier. i had to do without.
Sept. 17
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thx for all responses.
on this occasion, relative success came to those who chose to overcall (unlike me) as lho responded 3NT on a flat 14 +/-. It turned out to be important to direct a lead from partner (who held Kxx) as the 1 opener tabled about 14-count 4414 hand with stiff Jack of opposite Axx in declarer's hand. Declarer sweats but still comes to 9 tricks on a lead while any other lead gives him time to knock out the ace and come to 12 tricks with Qx of s falling (lose about 5 or 6 imps)
In retrospect, I wonder if the vote would have been different had the method of scoring been match points.
DHL
Sept. 14
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ya think the odds were that high?
Sept. 10
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pick-up opponents, asked, no answer: sorry
Sept. 10
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ok
i was just thinking of acronym gosh: good one-suited hand
Sept. 8
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Steve: if you cash C-A and then eventually lead club from the board (after 2 rounds of s, 3 rounds of spades and a ruff), you will have likely count that lho had (hypothetically) 7 s, 3 s, 1 , and 2 s. What do you play when rho tables the 9 on the 2nd round of clubs? Is it 3:2 that rho has king? or is there something I am failing to take into account?
Sept. 1
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Actually, his “more” was K, 43, AK32, KQ9643: not good enough for a reverse imo, but just needing even a partial stopper to have reasonable plays for 3NT. Was 3 too aggressive? That's why I asked what 3 meant?: a punt?, a partial stopper?, full stopper along with A less likely. It just seemed like the hand was worth one more try.
Sept. 1
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RF, or should i say Sen R F,or the Distinguished Gentleman:
You're close to the actual companion hand.except for the major cards- you got the major distro correct but not the honors: dealer had xx in s and stiff K. So you offered that the OP hand should bid 3 over 3? (which is exactly what happened at the table. 3 got dbl - big surprise (not). My respectful question to you is: what does 3 mean? What is its purpose? What is it saying in words? Is it showing or asking or merely saying that she can't bid 3NT? or what? a partial stopper? what is it asking opener to do now? This was the issue/ topic of brief discussion that followed the hand. So we appreciate you feedback and insight. Tx
Aug. 31
Donald Lurie edited this comment Aug. 31
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correction. “It's good to be the King”
Aug. 29
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It's good to be King!
Aug. 29
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what is the difference between an agreement and “yes, dear?”
Aug. 26
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thx for the reference. is an abstract
Aug. 25
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Thx you all for all of your responses so far. I posted this to see whether or not, given the options of rkb, ebw, and 5N-pas, if GSF is totally deceased and buried. Or are there a few situations where it might be applicable?
There is a small backstory to this post/ survey. About 8 to 10 years ago, give or take, I was fortunate enough to play a few hands on BBO with a well-known younger WC champion. We had an interesting auction that began 1m - 1M and included a supt X (or was it a XX), a minor suit agreement, and an unexpected jump to 5NT. Never having met (and certainly never having played with or against him/ her), I wasn't sure whether 5NT was GSF or PAS. (I don't recall the bidding or the reason why.) I guessed incorrectly that it was PAS but my partner intended it as GSF, and explained to me that he/ she thought that it was fairly obvious. It probably should've been, but as usual I got the meaning wrong.
Then came the hand that triggered this poll. Realizing that my P didn't play 4 as rkb, i drew a blank on exactly what our agreement was for rkb. All I needed to know (or so I thought at 1 am - brain dead as usual, head swimming, eyes shot) was whether or not my P had 2 of the top 3 honors. So I trotted out 5NT, hoping for a GSF interpretation.
Works out I could've invented a fake 5 exl bid, (didn't think of it at the time- I admit it). I probably could have bid the whole hand better ( A3, AKQ85, A, A8743- could make this a bidding poll re opening 1 or 2 but won't). P had something like KT9, 97, 763, KQ965 - a perfecto. Do you respond 3H, 3D, 3S, 3N, 4C over 3C? What is 4N over 4C? etc etc).
So, I hope that I have answered the initial responder's question regarding what the point of the poll like this was. Is GSF now totally obsolete and never applicable, or are there certain situations where it could still apply? Is 5N now always PAS? Are there exceptions (such as xNT - 5NT?) The responses to this post/ survey is interesting: seems that some of you might still utilize it in certain situations. I must admit that I wasn't aware that “so few use GSF any more”.. Nice to know.

Keep the responses coming.
Aug. 25
Donald Lurie edited this comment Aug. 26
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Please be so kind as to provide/ cite the reference. I would love to see the study/ data/ report. i have some background in psych assessment among other related things.
Thx in advance.
Aug. 25
Donald Lurie edited this comment Aug. 25
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assume natural, little to no interest in s, good s
Aug. 25
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Just as an add-onto this discussion of the meaning of a pass: instead of pass, what would 2 by advancer mean? Is it natural or could it be showing a little something in hand and be asking the MCB hand to clarify his/her hand. (sort of like a 2 response to 2 Landy/ Multilandy) If nothing else, that makes the 5-5 + hand declarer and potentially “protects” the K. just a thought. This was a pass implies minimum interest in a major but still leaves room open for advancer to do something over 2M should further action be suggested by advancer's hand. Granted, this option would not be available if the MCB was in s but…….
Aug. 21
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we do/ did not have much in the way of agreements about what pass (demanding xx or a wish to play 2x), an immediate 2M, etc would mean. I, personally believe that a bid of 2 instead of XX need not show 6 (sort of like a cue after partner makes a takeout X of 1m says bid ur better major, with equal bid s- but that's me - 6-5 in Ms never seems to work out well for me as a MCB).
I suspect east's initial pass was intended to mean no preference, but that subsequent bids sounded like 2-2 in majors- again, that's me). after all, how often does this sequence of a balancing MCB occur? that's why I'm not sure it was the better bid of 2 options (1 followed by s) being better. with my memory, i prefer the simpler option when possible.
i'm just not sure which is better, so I shall repost the west hand as a bidding poll.
Aug. 20
Donald Lurie edited this comment Aug. 20
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your comment paragraphs 2 & 3 makes me realize that the question was not worded clearly. I was talking about XX vs 2H by the hand that made the 2-suited major bid, not advancer. Thx for helping me see that. Hope it clarifies for others.
Aug. 20
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