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All comments by Csaba Czimer
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That's just what I played, but was not good enough. Try to improve it.
June 15, 2015
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Corrected, thank you.
June 15, 2015
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1.
you should have some agreement what 3n means
(a) it it a 1-suiter hand that is too strong for 3? Obviously this version was played here.
(b) or is it based on solid clubs and (mostly) stopper in the other suits?

2.
what is 4? At minors you simply don't have enough bidding space to control-bid first and then ask for aces, thus 4 should be some sort of ace ask (ORKC or normal RKC).

3.
Personally I think that cuebidding is completely useless, it usually leads to “obscurity followed by obscurity, and at the end we bid the grand” as here.

If you choose to use them, then have some agreement whether they promise 1st round control or not. And have some agreement what a redouble means when they are doubled.

And agree whether (or when) cue-bidding is mandatory and when it shows extra. North did not have any extra here.

4.
5N does not make much sense either, we clearly have clubs and nothing else. It should be pick a slam though. Did it offer clubs or NT?

I agree with Josh: you do better if you never-ever use GSF. (I told my partner some weeks ago, that there are only 2 cases where 5N invites to 7: 1N-5N and 2N-5N, and nothing more. From this 1N-5N does not make any sense either because we play CONFI.

5.
North is dead minimum for his 3N. With 1 point less it's a clear-cut 3 rebid.

Summary: if you want stable, well defined slam bidding, play a relay system. Compared to them “natural” systems are pathetic in slam bidding.
June 9, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment June 9, 2015
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Thank you very much. So, about 53% of 15 HCP 4333s worth less than 14.5 K&R and 78% of them are below 15.0.
June 8, 2015
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I used to play them for several years, but they simply not worth the complexity of the follow-up and the impact on the rest of the system. Weak jump shifts are much simpler and bring more, especially in precision.
June 7, 2015
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As Thomas Andrews calculates here:
http://bridge.thomasoandrews.com/valuations/original.html
the simple 4-3-2-1 point count method works better at NT than K&R. True, when you open 1NT, you don't yet know what the end contract will be.
June 7, 2015
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Doug, I would be interested in a similar stat on 15 HCP 4333 hands. Can you run and publish that one? Thank you.

One of my favourite advice is that if you have 4333, subtract a point. Let's see how much it's worth.
June 7, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment June 7, 2015
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My rule in doubt is that if our game bid can be based purely on shape then our pass is not forcing, otherwise it is. What is the situation here? Opener showed 18-19 balanced. With a weaker shapely hand she should have bid splinter (or 3 or 2) instead. Thus her pass is clearly forcing here.
Btw, a cue bid below 3M denies 4-card support IMO, and even 3 (mostly) if you play support doubles.

One more note: 2 ( = not double and not 4) then 5 is very strange itself. Do they have 8-5 or 7-5 waiting for a double?
June 7, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment June 7, 2015
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to board 1: yes, you are right. If we see JT dropping from West, finessing is about 3 to 1 favourite if we suppose that west drops any 2 cards with equal chance from JT9. (from JT these two cards are always dropped, from JT9 it's 1/3 chance that these two are dropped. If we play it three times, we will see 3 JT from JT and 1 JT from JT9, thus the spade finesse is 73.2% in this case (1 specific 3-3 is 1,8%, 1 specific 4-2 is 1,6%). Martens' chance (after JT dropped) is P(Sp 3-3) + P(Sp 4-2) * P(Cl 2-2) ~ 26.8% + 73.2% * 40.7% = 56.6%.
May 29, 2015
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Good idea. I was too busy choosing between the above two lines. Just a bit more thinking and I might have found this improvement.
May 28, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 28, 2015
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The problem is that if I opt for the “keep them in the dark” (B) plan, then I must win the king before she plays anything. Anyway, I don't think they play suit preference on partner's lead.

The question is instead, how can I mix-up their smith signal (or club count signal?) at trick 2, i.e. which club spot should I play from hand to convince them to continue spades. If it's a smith case for them then their small club at trick 2 means nothing special (you may continue our suit) and a high one asks for a switch. If they judge to show count then a high one is odd, low is even.
May 26, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 26, 2015
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We (bridge players) all make silly mistakes sometimes. Except perhaps you :)
But it does not mean that we are all silly.
May 26, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 26, 2015
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You may be right about the club play, but I may have 18-19 balanced too. We play good-bad 2N, thus I double with that when have 3 hearts.
May 26, 2015
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I chose other, because we bid 1 with 5+ and 4M with at least invitational hands or with 4-4 and GF+.

In our system (after 1-1-1N):
- 2: sign-off in or inviting hands with 5+ and 4, opener must bid 2, responder's next bid is natural (2M = 3 cards) and inviting, showing shape
- 2: GF ask (opener bids naturally)
- 2: natural, inviting, can be passed (5+ and 4 in this suit)
May 25, 2015
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True, it's unusual to ask for trump queen and then ask one more when partner denied it, but I don't think it's impossible.

In my view:
- 5N is never to play
- normally (after RKC) it asks kings (“bid your cheapest king”)
- at MP it does not guarantee all the keycards plus the trump queen, our goal is often to find out whether we can play 6N instead of 6 suit (that may be the case here too)
- omitting RKC it's usually pick a slam (ecxept 1N-5N and 2N-5N)

Anyway, I prefer playing relay systems and spiral scan after RKC (which is 4trump+1 in worst case), they have the great advantage of having well defined bids.

Why did I bid this 4? Did I forgot to subtract 1 point for my great shape again??
May 8, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment May 8, 2015
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Life of today's authors is easier: you simply enter your deal into a bridge software (GIB, for example) and you can't make silly mistakes, you may also check your analysis.
May 2, 2015
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A few words on bidding. Here is a useful approach that I play after 1m-1M-1N:

- jump above 3M in a new suit: one-suiter slam try with exactly singleton in the named suit (autosplinter)
- 2 (2-way checkback, forces 2) then jump above 3M in a new suit: similar hand with void in the suit.

This way the balanced hand can be evaluated (much) better. The actual hand:

1 - 1
1N - 2 // 2-way checkback, mostly INV, forces 2
2 - 4 // one-suiter , slam try, void in

an easy stop in 4

(Edit: sorry, others mentioned it too, I have not read the comments before writing this one)
April 23, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment April 23, 2015
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I voted on more methods…

If you don't play any gadget then North might rebid 2N after Stayman and you make it. 9 points + 2 good tens - singleton J, I estimate it an ordinary 9 count, that is invite, but I don't really blame him for bidding the vulnerable game, especially at IMP scoring.

About the methods:
in my pet systems after 1N-2-2 we play like this, both can solve this hand

version (a): invit Smolen
2: smolen, INV+, F1
2N: INV
3: 5+, GF
3: GF, SPL, 4441 (or 5m440)

Actual hand:
1N-2
2-3 no major // 4-1-4-4 (or 4-0-(54))
4-5 can't play 3N, good hand for slam // easy sign-off, already overbid slightly
___________________________________

version (b): usual Smolen and 2 puppet
2: puppet to 2
(a) 5-4 weak hand (will pass 2)
(b) 5, INV, (near) BAL (will bid 2N)
© 4+ m, short in the other minor (3m next, opener can ask for shortness and length)
(d) 4441 (5m440) with both minors (3M next)
2: 5-card suit, NAT INV
2N: NAT INV
3: NAT, 4+ suit, short in a major (opener can ask)
3: GF Smolen

Actual hand:
1N-2
2-2 no major // puppet to 2
2-3 // 4-1-4-4 (or 4-0-(54))
4-5 can't play 3N, good hand for slam // easy sign-off, already overbid slightly
March 26, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 26, 2015
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Kit, a question about advancer's bids. Let's suppose that West passes. Does your cue guarantee support in this case too? If yes: how do you bid with forcing hands that lack support? Do you play transfers?
March 15, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 15, 2015
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Let's see a specific one, for example Rodwell's book.
On Amazon, a paperback copy costs 22 USD (I bought it a bit cheaper with free delivery). The same text is divided into 4 parts in the e-book edition, together they cost 25 USD.

I ask it once again. Why the printed version is cheaper? Same author, same editor. I suppose that postmen, pressmen, paper mill workers and loggers all pay a bit to make it possible. Or are they paid? Hm…
March 11, 2015
Csaba Czimer edited this comment March 12, 2015
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