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Playing 2/1 - 15-17: what are the arguments against 1NT showing 18-19 after 1m-pass-1/-1...?

You and partner plays 2/1 gf, 15-17 NT, 5 card major with support doubles. The bidding goes:

W
N
E
S
1
P
1
1
?

What are the arguments against letting 1NT = 18-19 now... ? In my opinion this should be obvious.

Almost everybody in Scandinavia plays 1NT from opener as 12-14 with 1(2) stopper in spades. The only difference between 'pass' and '1NT'can be boiled down to how good the spade suit is when opener has a balanced 12-14 with no rebid of his minor or support of partner's hearts are available. Maybe you and partner have agreed that Q9x is a no go, while Q10x or A10  or 10xxx is ok ...? 

But that doesn't really matter in my opinion. Whatever your agreement with partner might be, I simply haven't been able to find solid arguments for why 1NT shouldn't show 18-19...?

I see only upsides. The bidding stays low, you can reserve 2NT for an unbalanced non-reversable minor hand. Fear of NS missing 1NT too often is not a solid argument, since responder will know to bid 1 with (small) values) in spades and opener can always correct.

The bidding described above occurs with very high frequency; and all players on bridgewinners have tried to be in 2NT minus 1 (or worse) after an invitational sequence from partner. 

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