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Meaning of 2NT rebid and high reverse opposite a 2-level negative double?

Consider the following bidding problem:

South
J4
AJ762
8
KQ1053
W
N
E
S
1
2
X
P
?

I think that for most partnerships North is likely to have 4 spades, but this isn't guaranteed for a 2-level negative double.  Also North isn't saying anything about clubs, although in practice he's unlikely to be short.

Should South rebid 3 with this hand?  If not, if he obliged to rebid 2, or can he use 2NT as some sort of "good-bad" manoeuvre?

Please choose one of the first three options and/or one of the later options to indicate how you treat this situation.

Please select up to 2 choices.

2NT shows a minimum hand and is therefore non-forcing.
2NT shows a non-minimum hand, but is still non-forcing.
2NT asks responder to rebid 3 on most minimum hands.
3 is GF (game forcing).
3 is F1R (forcing for one round), showing 4+ clubs.
3 is F1R, showing 5+ clubs.
3 is NF (non-forcing) with 4+ clubs and extra values.
3 is NF with 5+ clubs and extra values.
3 is NF with 4+ clubs, perhaps minimum.
3 is NF with 5+ clubs, perhaps minimum.

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